The new forums will be named Coin Return (based on the most recent
vote)! You can check on the status and timeline of the transition to the new forums
here.
We now return to our regularly scheduled PA Forums. Please let me (Hahnsoo1) know if something isn't working. The Holiday Forum will remain up until January 10, 2025.
Gun Control in the US: Second Amendment "Incorporated" in CA
Posts
As opposed to any number of other times the court has made up rights (Roe v Wade and anything predicated on interstate commerce comes to mind)?
If you're looking for an instance where the court made up a right, Griswold is a better bet than Roe. Also, figuring out how to handle the interstate commerce clause really isn't a rights issue so much as it is a federalism issue.
It's a rights issue in that it involves deciding the federal government has the right to do all kinds of shit not remotely in the constitution.
I agree, that's why I limited my statement at the American Minuteman which is what was relevant to the quotes of the Federalist Papers.
Although, to my (admittedly limited) understanding, the modern legal definition of the term militia is primarily a broadening of the term to include Federal militia, not a restriction that excludes the people. So the interpretation of the individuals right to bear arms still stands, especially in light of the militia clause that opens the second amendment.
And no, I don't think that gives me the right to put a Howitzer in my front yard. But that would be neat.
edit: Also, I'm talking primarily about the militia of free societies. Societies ruled by monarchy and other forms of despotism of course are going to tightly control access to armament of any kind.
Wasn't the ability to blatantly ignore clauses of the constitution given a strong precedent in Marbury v. Madison?
You keep throwing around stare decisis like it's some kind of law. 2 points:
1. Stare decisis is a general guideline. The supreme court has complete authority to review it's previous decisions.
2. The fact that cases keep coming before the court can be taken by the court evidence in and of itself that the issue is not adequately settled and needs further interpretation.
Stare decisis is a fine justification for overturning the verdict of a lower court or refusing to hear a case, but the Supreme Court has absolute justification and authority for reinterpreting it's previous decisions as it sees fit.
And even then, people who are dumb enough to wave their gun around lose their permit. And heaven help you if you point the weapon or actually shoot someone with it.
Pretty much. If you're a CHL holder who actually carries and does not practice regularly and does not fully understand your states laws regarding CHL you're an absolute idiot.
And Griswold, while controversial provided a reasonable justification and had significant precedent that penumbras of enumerated rights created a right to privacy, a concept was supported by precedent from Common Law.
It has authority to reinterpret previous decisions as it sees fit yes.
It does not have justification to do so unless they are right and the change in precedent does more good than judicial restraint would.
QEDMF xbl: PantsB G+
Not really at all. It's just that what "necessary and proper" means in a legal sense in the US isn't what we think it is. Marshall writes that necessary cannot only mean that which could not be done without, because that's a question we can't answer and makes the government powerless. Necessary then has to mean something done with the express and reasonable purpose for attaining a legitimate end. Hence, the Federal government can establish a national bank to regulate commerce even though it is not a specifically enumerated power because it seems totally reasonable for the end it's employed for.
If you get rid of implied power, so much of what we know goes down the tubes.
"We believe in the people and their 'wisdom' as if there was some special secret entrance to knowledge that barred to anyone who had ever learned anything." - Friedrich Nietzsche
So in other words, when the court makes a decision you agree with, it's clearly following the law as it should, but when the court makes a decision you don't agree with, it is not following the law.
Or, restated, when I think the court isn't following the law I don't agree with it.
QEDMF xbl: PantsB G+
And I'm sure even the most neutral observer has some bias. I'm not hugely anti-gun IMO. I don't own a gun but I think it'd be fun to go to the range and put holes in targets to try it out. I can sympathize with those who were brought up hunting or who want a gun in their homes for a real or perceived sense of security. But I don't think the Founders wrote a Constitution that legalized armed rebellion or prohibited restrictions on private gun ownership unrelated to the common defense through a well-regulated militia.
Sometimes decisions are right on the law but wrong ethically or set/limit policy in a way one would not prefer. Kelo was decided rightly IMO but federal law should be written to limit that kind type of use of eminent domain. I think Affirmative Action is generally a positive in University admissions on a societal and institutional level but I also think the University of Michigan cases were incorrectly decided. People can be pro-medical marijuana and still recognize that Gonzales v. Raich could only be decided in the way it was. Sometimes the law sucks and it needs to be changed.
QEDMF xbl: PantsB G+
The U.S. Militia is defined by federal law, specifically the Militia Act of 1903. By creating the National Guard, it separated the U.S. Militia into two forces:
1. The organized militia: That's the National Guard.
2. The reserve (or unorganized) militia: All able-bodied males, ages 17 - 45, that aren't members of the National Guard.
In other words, if you are male and between the ages of 17 and 45, federal law says you are a member of the militia.
It doesn't overrule the constitution, but I bet it will carry considerable weight, if you try to nail down a definition of the militia. IMHO, it shoots a hole into the "National Guard is the militia now" argument. Because federal law says it's not intended as a replacement but as a complement.
The 2nd Amendment applies to the "well-organized" militia which statutorily consists of the National Guard. US v Miller
QEDMF xbl: PantsB G+