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Simple question: BF and GF both get Chlamydia. What are the odds that it wasn't generated from sex with someone outside the relationship? It's clear one got it and gave it to the other, but what are the odds one got it 'original?'
The girl's been faithful, it's the boy who's in question here.
Also, is it possible to tell (aka could a doctor tell you) how you got Chlamydia i.e. transmitted or 'original'?
If it's a question of fidelity, it's possible that one of them had a symptomless Chlamydia before the relationship and it only recently became noticeable, but yeah, someone had sex with someone who had Chlamydia at some point.
No. One of them got it from someone else. That's how it works.
Is this even serious?
See, everyone says that, but then how did the first case of chlamydia occur?
I mean its impossible to say "they definitely got it from someone else" because otherwise it wouldn't exist. That said, chances are low that the conditions that bread the first case of chlamydia were also true for the guy that got it.
To answer the rest of your question - no a doctor won't be able to tell how it was gotten.
Having no medical knowledge whatsoever, I assumed Chlamydia came also from some other source. Every ball we ever caught was made somewhere right? Poor example I know but that's my reasoning.
So what are the odds? They've both had sexual partners before but like one year ago, and they got the symptoms at the same time.
No. One of them got it from someone else. That's how it works.
Is this even serious?
See, everyone says that, but then how did the first case of chlamydia occur?
I mean its impossible to say "they definitely got it from someone else" because otherwise it wouldn't exist. That said, chances are low that the conditions that bread the first case of chlamydia were also true for the guy that got it.
To answer the rest of your question - no a doctor won't be able to tell how it was gotten.
To even suggest that Chlamydia evolved independently on just these two people is just dumb.
OP, one of them got it from someone else.
Taken from the CDC website:
Chlamydia is known as a "silent" disease because about three quarters of infected women and about half of infected men have no symptoms. If symptoms do occur, they usually appear within 1 to 3 weeks after exposure.
Well they both have symptoms, which they discovered this week. Three weeks ago the girl was complaining to me that the condom broke and she may be pregnant. She wasn't pregnant, but yeah, case cracked.
Having no medical knowledge whatsoever, I assumed Chlamydia came also from some other source. Every ball we ever caught was made somewhere right? Poor example I know but that's my reasoning.
So what are the odds? They've both had sexual partners before but like one year ago, and they got the symptoms at the same time.
It'll be embarrassing, but you can ask your previous partners if they have Chlamydia.
You could also just let it go. Knowing who got it first and from whom just might not be worth the trouble.
Having no medical knowledge whatsoever, I assumed Chlamydia came also from some other source. Every ball we ever caught was made somewhere right? Poor example I know but that's my reasoning.
So what are the odds? They've both had sexual partners before but like one year ago, and they got the symptoms at the same time.
It'll be embarrassing, but you can ask your previous partners if they have Chlamydia.
You could also just let it go. Knowing who got it first and from whom just might not be worth the trouble.
No, I think they should definitely seek out their previous partners and tell them to get checked. Finding out where they got it from can prevent it spreading to other people.
Willeth on
@vgreminders - Don't miss out on timed events in gaming! @gamefacts - Totally and utterly true gaming facts on the regular!
Having no medical knowledge whatsoever, I assumed Chlamydia came also from some other source. Every ball we ever caught was made somewhere right? Poor example I know but that's my reasoning.
So what are the odds? They've both had sexual partners before but like one year ago, and they got the symptoms at the same time.
Also bear in mind that the Clap self cures after about 4 months... assuming it doesn't make you infertile in the process.
Its really easy to cure - just get them to take some doxycycline for about a week.
Not so easy to cure is somebodies urge to cheat... which is exactly what happened here.
Having no medical knowledge whatsoever, I assumed Chlamydia came also from some other source. Every ball we ever caught was made somewhere right? Poor example I know but that's my reasoning.
So what are the odds? They've both had sexual partners before but like one year ago, and they got the symptoms at the same time.
It'll be embarrassing, but you can ask your previous partners if they have Chlamydia.
You could also just let it go. Knowing who got it first and from whom just might not be worth the trouble.
No, I think they should definitely seek out their previous partners and tell them to get checked. Finding out where they got it from can prevent it spreading to other people.
Yikes, it hadn't occurred to me that their previous partners might unknowingly be carrying it. Yeah, definitely contact them and have them get checked out.
No. One of them got it from someone else. That's how it works.
Is this even serious?
See, everyone says that, but then how did the first case of chlamydia occur?
First cases are usually some sort of special event, e.g. HIV was likely some rare transfer of a virus between species that just happened, or a specific recombination of genetics like the swine virus.
The likely hood of that route of infection varies, (though say flu viruses have a habbit of swapping genomes particularly when the conditions are right rather than the rare chance of an encounter between human + animal) but in the case of chlamydia you can pretty much assume it's zero.
The rest of the time it's just fairly endemic in the population, with people able to be carriers for several years and show no signs of infection.
Having no medical knowledge whatsoever, I assumed Chlamydia came also from some other source. Every ball we ever caught was made somewhere right? Poor example I know but that's my reasoning.
So what are the odds? They've both had sexual partners before but like one year ago, and they got the symptoms at the same time.
Also bear in mind that the Clap self cures after about 4 months... assuming it doesn't make you infertile in the process.
Its really easy to cure - just get them to take some doxycycline for about a week.
Not so easy to cure is somebodies urge to cheat... which is exactly what happened here.
As was pointed out, Chlamydia can sit dormant for years, without manifesting any symptoms at all. Given that they've both had partners previously, this does not necessarily mean anyone cheated.
As was pointed out, Chlamydia can sit dormant for years, without manifesting any symptoms at all. Given that they've both had partners previously, this does not necessarily mean anyone cheated.
IANAD
While people can be asymptomatic carriers, it'd be very, very strange for them to start exhibiting symptoms at the same time that they transmit the disease to their partner for the first time. Asymptomatic carriers are still able to cause infections in any partner they have, they just don't suffer from the disease themselves. It's very unlikely that they could've been sexually active with the asymptomatic carrier not infecting the other partner and having that partner exhibit symptoms from the infection. To have that happen AND to have the initial carrier begin to exhibit symptoms at the exact same time as the partner is very, very unlikely.
It would, however, be completely believable that one person would be like, "Oh shit, you gave me the clap!" while the other person was like, "Oh, snap! I didn't even know I had that!" (I actually know a couple that had that happen at the beginning of their relationship. Let me tell you, that's a quick test over how serious you are.)
As was pointed out, Chlamydia can sit dormant for years, without manifesting any symptoms at all. Given that they've both had partners previously, this does not necessarily mean anyone cheated.
This. This could have been sitting in his system for years so all the people saying "he obviously cheated" are wrong. Of course it doesn't mean he didn't cheat either just that if he has an otherwise clean track record you should maybe give him the benefit of the doubt.
And chlamydia self cures after four months? First I've heard of it, if you don't treat it it'll make you infertile.
And chlamydia self cures after four months? First I've heard of it, if you don't treat it it'll make you infertile.
Yeah... I think that's probably not true, or at least not the whole story.
(ref) This suggests that most asymptomatic women will have chlamydia for over a year.
These data are particularly valuable when discussing positive results with a woman, largely because of the implications for her sexual relationships. Younger people are more likely to have more than one new sexual partner in the last 12 months and also to have relationships of shorter duration.7,8 Therefore, it is quite possible that a young woman may have acquired her infection from a previous sexual partner two or even three years ago. This information should be passed on to asymptomatic women diagnosed with chlamydia, as it could help prevent the potential destructive repercussions with current sexual partners that may arise if she believes that her infection had been recently acquired. This information should be included in any chlamydia education material targeting both clinicians and the general public and may help reduce any harm associated with screening.
No. One of them got it from someone else. That's how it works.
Is this even serious?
See, everyone says that, but then how did the first case of chlamydia occur?
I mean its impossible to say "they definitely got it from someone else" because otherwise it wouldn't exist. That said, chances are low that the conditions that bread the first case of chlamydia were also true for the guy that got it.
To answer the rest of your question - no a doctor won't be able to tell how it was gotten.
To even suggest that Chlamydia evolved independently on just these two people is just dumb.
OP, one of them got it from someone else.
Taken from the CDC website:
Chlamydia is known as a "silent" disease because about three quarters of infected women and about half of infected men have no symptoms. If symptoms do occur, they usually appear within 1 to 3 weeks after exposure.
I wasn't saying it was likely - besides it wouldn't have to evolve independently, could evolved on one and then the one transfered to the other. Eitherway, the point I was trying to make was that its not "just a joke" like someone above suggested.
Wezoin on
0
ShogunHair long; money long; me and broke wizards we don't get alongRegistered Userregular
edited May 2009
OP you or these people should see a physician first, and once cured you can then start going all Sherlock Holmes on who gave who what STD.
I wasn't saying it was likely - besides it wouldn't have to evolve independently, could evolved on one and then the one transfered to the other. Eitherway, the point I was trying to make was that its not "just a joke" like someone above suggested.
Yeah, no. People having sex need to have a fundamental grasp of a few things. Like where do babies come from, and where do diseases come from are definitely two of them.
Posts
No. One of them got it from someone else. That's how it works.
Is this even serious?
See, everyone says that, but then how did the first case of chlamydia occur?
I mean its impossible to say "they definitely got it from someone else" because otherwise it wouldn't exist. That said, chances are low that the conditions that bread the first case of chlamydia were also true for the guy that got it.
To answer the rest of your question - no a doctor won't be able to tell how it was gotten.
Having no medical knowledge whatsoever, I assumed Chlamydia came also from some other source. Every ball we ever caught was made somewhere right? Poor example I know but that's my reasoning.
So what are the odds? They've both had sexual partners before but like one year ago, and they got the symptoms at the same time.
To even suggest that Chlamydia evolved independently on just these two people is just dumb.
OP, one of them got it from someone else.
Taken from the CDC website:
Cheers!
If so, I hope she's talking to a doctor about it.
Hello from a fellow melbournian etc.
It'll be embarrassing, but you can ask your previous partners if they have Chlamydia.
You could also just let it go. Knowing who got it first and from whom just might not be worth the trouble.
https://twitter.com/Hooraydiation
No, I think they should definitely seek out their previous partners and tell them to get checked. Finding out where they got it from can prevent it spreading to other people.
@gamefacts - Totally and utterly true gaming facts on the regular!
Also bear in mind that the Clap self cures after about 4 months... assuming it doesn't make you infertile in the process.
Its really easy to cure - just get them to take some doxycycline for about a week.
Not so easy to cure is somebodies urge to cheat... which is exactly what happened here.
Yikes, it hadn't occurred to me that their previous partners might unknowingly be carrying it. Yeah, definitely contact them and have them get checked out.
https://twitter.com/Hooraydiation
First cases are usually some sort of special event, e.g. HIV was likely some rare transfer of a virus between species that just happened, or a specific recombination of genetics like the swine virus.
The likely hood of that route of infection varies, (though say flu viruses have a habbit of swapping genomes particularly when the conditions are right rather than the rare chance of an encounter between human + animal) but in the case of chlamydia you can pretty much assume it's zero.
The rest of the time it's just fairly endemic in the population, with people able to be carriers for several years and show no signs of infection.
IANAD
While people can be asymptomatic carriers, it'd be very, very strange for them to start exhibiting symptoms at the same time that they transmit the disease to their partner for the first time. Asymptomatic carriers are still able to cause infections in any partner they have, they just don't suffer from the disease themselves. It's very unlikely that they could've been sexually active with the asymptomatic carrier not infecting the other partner and having that partner exhibit symptoms from the infection. To have that happen AND to have the initial carrier begin to exhibit symptoms at the exact same time as the partner is very, very unlikely.
It would, however, be completely believable that one person would be like, "Oh shit, you gave me the clap!" while the other person was like, "Oh, snap! I didn't even know I had that!" (I actually know a couple that had that happen at the beginning of their relationship. Let me tell you, that's a quick test over how serious you are.)
This. This could have been sitting in his system for years so all the people saying "he obviously cheated" are wrong. Of course it doesn't mean he didn't cheat either just that if he has an otherwise clean track record you should maybe give him the benefit of the doubt.
And chlamydia self cures after four months? First I've heard of it, if you don't treat it it'll make you infertile.
The clap usually refers to Gonorrhea, which assuredly does not go away without treatment. It can stop manifesting symptoms, but it's still there.
Chlamydia won't go away on it's own, either.
I'd be so terrified of my dick rotting away that I'd fucking sprint to the doctor's office.
I wasn't saying it was likely - besides it wouldn't have to evolve independently, could evolved on one and then the one transfered to the other. Eitherway, the point I was trying to make was that its not "just a joke" like someone above suggested.
Shogun Streams Vidya
Yeah, no. People having sex need to have a fundamental grasp of a few things. Like where do babies come from, and where do diseases come from are definitely two of them.